The logic of deterministic free will

We’re always asked on DCI tours, what about free will? If seeds determine everything that is going to happen, then the universe is deterministic and everything is already decided; the Calvinists were right.

The answer I usually give is that if the first law of seeds is correct (seeds are definite; that is, they must produce a similar result), then what is the result that must come from offering someone else a choice? A friend of mine just emailed me about this, so I thought maybe I would write it out as a formal syllogism:

Consider the ability to make choices,
It must exist for you,
Because you have offered choices to others.

True or false? Let’s run the tests:

Test #1: Is there a connection between the ability to make choices and offering choices to others? I would say yes, that’s the very seed for that thing.

Test #2: If you offer choices to others, must the ability to make choices exist for you? Yes, the law of seeds #1 says that.

Test #3: If you the ability to make choices does not exist for you, does that mean you have not offered choices to others in the past? Again, I would argue yes here too. If you don’t give away money, you won’t have money in the future.

What do you think?

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4 thoughts on “The logic of deterministic free will

  1. I am confused.
    Are you proposing that if I have no choices (free will) it is because I have never offered choices to others?
    Where would the first opportunity arise for anyone to give others choices if they never have, and therefore have no seeds planted to ripen with that karma?

    1. Dear Patrick,

      Yes, exactly. For example, your dog has fewer options. 😉 If you ask why, we could say that the dog did not offer choice to others in the past, so now he/she has no choices to make of their own.

      Maybe I’ll write a blog post on “firsts”; we discussed it in the logic class I did at the Three Jewels; have you had a chance/any inclination to watch any of them?

      Sincerely,
      Eric

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